Originally Posted by
Markus
Dang, never looked at it that way. Thanks a lot!
For future reference: 0 to 1 is ofc because y=x² (and y² = x) has solutions x = 0 and x = 1
Edit: follow-up question: why from x² to sqrt(x) and not other way around?
Edit2: obviously because for x < 1, sqrt(x) is larger than x², god I'm in bad shape.
because on range 0-1 sqrt(x) >= (x) >= x^2
z
edit: and as it has been already said y=x^2 is one bounding element and y^2=x which is equivalent to y=sqrt(x) is the other bounding element
Perfect script? There is no such thing as "perfect", only "better than you expect".